(Via Israpundit🙂
The last paragraph of an AP report on the UN commemoration of the Holocaust reads as follows:
The United Nations was created in the wake of World War II. It voted soon after, in 1947, to carve out two countries in Palestine, one Jewish, the other Arab, but the Palestinians’ share was lost in the 1948 Mideast war with parts divvied up among Israel, Jordan and Egypt.
In re-writing history, AP forget that the Arabs in the former Palestine rejected the UN partition plan and opted for a war of aggression, together with the surrounding Arab countries. And thus, the statement “the Palestinians’ share was lost in the 1948 Mideast war” is wrong on commission – there was no “Palestinians’ share” because there were no “Palestinians”; and wrong on omission – forgetting the Arab war of aggression, which was waged with the proclaimed aim of destroying the Jews in the former Palestine. Would one say that “the Germans’ share of East Prussia was lost in World War II” without noting the Nazi war of aggression? Why do the Arabs get an exemption from historical facts?
